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kent's avatar

In the article, it is mentioned that 12.5% of adults responded they did not have enough to eat in the past week alone. A few sentences later, 6.7% of household income is spent on groceries. I'm having trouble wrapping my head around these two percentages as they don't appear to be congruent.

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Richie's avatar

The concept of currency exchange rates has always mystified me a bit.

Maybe you explained it in here and I didn't comprehend. But why is there such a large disconnect between the exchange rate, and the purchasing power calculations?

Or to ask more specifically, why would anybody give 92 rubles for one dollar, if that dollar can only buy them about 25% as many groceries as the 92 rubles?

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